The refinance mortgage language says: the borrower...
Ultimately I suppose that I'll have to speak with an attorney about it, but I thought I would sound out the bogleheads first. What do you think is the proper legal interpretation of "unreasonably" in this case? I may be biased, but I can't think of a reason why it would be reasonable for the lender not to allow us to rent the place out. What do you think -- Is this something I could probably get taken care of for a few hundred dollars worth of attorney costs?"shall continue to occupy the Property as Borrower's principal residence for at least one year after the date of occupancy, unless Lender otherwise agrees in writing, which consent shall not be unreasonably withheld, or unless extenuating circumstances exist which are beyond Borrower's control."