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(Entry Point Articles) Commodities CCFs

 
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660ky612



Joined: 14 Jun 2007
Posts: 245
Location: Hong Kong SAR

PostPosted: Wed Dec 19, 2007 1:29 am    Post subject: (Entry Point Articles) Commodities CCFs Reply with quote

Dear Forum,

There is a long and updated list about commodities in the library here http://www.diehards.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=59
But we need an entry point perhaps.

o
Larry E. Swedroe, "The only guide to a winning investment strategy you'll ever need" New York, Truman Talley Books/St. Martin's Press, c2005. 1st rev. and updated ed. ----Appendix H: Commodities: A diversification and Hedging Tool

o In p.296 of the book, Swedroe mentioned: Paul D. Kaplan and Scott L. Kummer, "GSCI Collateralized Futures As a Hedging and Diversification Tool for Institutional Portfolios: An Update," Journal of Investing (Winter 1998)
A substitute goods is here http://corporate.morningstar.c....utures.pdf
It seems to me Kaplan and Kummer's 1998 work has not ever been mentioned in the forum.



From p.278 of swedroe's book: commodities ccf - the attractions are the low correlation to both bonds and stocks and the inflation hedge that neither stocks nor bonds offer. The greater the risk of inflation to the financial health of an investor, the more this asset class should be given consideration for inclusion in a portfolio.

Question: By sacrificing just a minor amount of expected return, the overall portfolio has a "much" lower S.D. Isn't that just portfolio theory? I want to be lazy and to have free lunch! Ladies and gentlemen!

Of course the problem is "Does commodities CCF work"? and how about REITs / non-US REITs and some safe Global Bonds?

Thanks, 660ky612 from Hong Kong

PS.
Has anybody read these articles before? Have you asked questions or participated in the discussions without consulting any necessary or essential documents?
Do you buy used books? http://www.abebooks.com/servle....=0&y=0

Have you just stated your assertions or opinions without stating the reason nor the source?


Last edited by 660ky612 on Wed Dec 19, 2007 3:55 am; edited 2 times in total
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stratton



Joined: 04 Mar 2007
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Location: Puget Sound

PostPosted: Wed Dec 19, 2007 2:24 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Another commodities info source is The Handbook of Inflation Hedging Investments. There are several chapters on commodities including how a commodities fund is run.

Paul
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larryswedroe



Joined: 22 Feb 2007
Posts: 5378
Location: St Louis MO

PostPosted: Wed Dec 19, 2007 9:20 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Yes, that is what MPT is about, what Markowitz won the NObel Prize for--for showing that you can add risky assets with non perfect correlation and create more efficient portfolios. And the best assets to add in terms of improving efficiency are those with negative correlation as they act as portfolio insurance. And when you have negative correlation high volatility is actually good--at least when you add small amounts to the portfolio.
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LH



Joined: 14 Mar 2007
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PostPosted: Thu Dec 20, 2007 4:31 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Larry or whomever,

Can you give some idea of what percentage change a say 5 percent allocation(total) to CCF would do under the circumstances CCF is meant to be beneficial under?

With smaller allocations, say 5 percent, its always kinda bothered me that whatever effect it had, would be multiplied by 0.05 to get its effect on the total portfolio. Of course, if the expected return under adverse conditions is high enough relative to the expected downturn of other assets, then it would be worth it. I assume thats the case, thats its the RELATIVE return next to asset classes that have just taken a huge hit, and not relative to a baseline of zero return, thats the key.

Like if whole portfolio excepting CCF went down 30 percent, and the 5 percent CCF went up 30 percent, the comparision would be between:
0.95(-30)=28.5 loss
and
0.05(30)=1.5 percent upward movement whole portfolio

which comes out to 27 percent loss, instead of say a 30 percent loss total... That does not seem like a whole lot of help?

This whole thing is basically a question, I am unsure of all of it. But everytime I think of 5 percent of a portfolio, it doesnt seem like it would really effect things much.

Known errors I could be making here are:

1) the possible size of the swing, maybe its larger than I would think, maybe instead of going up 30percent, CCF would go up 100 percent.

2)ignoring the benefit of 27 vs 30 percent loss, maybe thats more significant than I think it is

3)my math or fundamental way of thinking about this is simply wrong : )

Thanks for help,

LH
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larryswedroe



Joined: 22 Feb 2007
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PostPosted: Thu Dec 20, 2007 11:00 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

LH

Well in 73 when S&P fell 15% the GSCI was up 75%. So you can do the math. And in 2000 when the S&P fell 9% it went up 50%.

CCF is highly volatile and the negative correlation is a good thing.

Remember also that you not only get that return impact in one year the more important benefit is that it smooths the annual returns of the portfolio--the part of the issue Ferri repeatedly ignores in his analysis/critique, reducing the negative impact of volatility. This, as Bill Bernstein and I have both shown, can lead to the impact of CCF being as much as perhaps 5% more than the actual return if you viewed it in isolation.

Again, here is an example I gave based on GSCI and model portfolio
1970-2006. If you think it is not worth it, don't bother. To me this is a big deal.
Compound Return SD Worst Year
GSCI 11.51 18.81 -35.75
Portfolio A 15.86 14.99 -23.51
Portfolio B 15.96 14.25 -20.38

A is Value tilted type portfolio I recommend using DFA funds and B is with 5% GSCI

Thinking about it the way Rick Ferri does one would never consider CCF. Simple, low returns and high SD. And horrendous worst year. But note how small addition to the portfolio had the following three benefits
a) raised portfolio return
b) lowered SD
c)produced lower worst year than either alone

Note the diversification return. The GSCI was 3.45% lower return, yet portfolio return went up by 0.1%.

Now here to me is perhaps the most interesting for the Bogelheads to consider.

How much did the 95% equity contribute to the portfolio return of 15.96? 15.07% (95% x 15.86)

So how much did the CCF (the other 5%) contribute to generate the total portfolio return of 15.96%?

The other 5% must have added 89 basis points more to get to the total.

So it was if it had actually returned 17.8% or 89 bp x20 (on a weighted average basis).

So we might think of the diversification return benefit as 17.8- 11.5 or 6.3%. You think that should be ignored? Or was not worth it?

So if you thought that CCF would have a real return of say just riskless rate you still get the diversification return which should be considered.
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LH



Joined: 14 Mar 2007
Posts: 2477

PostPosted: Thu Dec 20, 2007 6:35 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

larryswedroe wrote:
LH

Well in 73 when S&P fell 15% the GSCI was up 75%. So you can do the math. And in 2000 when the S&P fell 9% it went up 50%.

CCF is highly volatile and the negative correlation is a good thing.

Remember also that you not only get that return impact in one year the more important benefit is that it smooths the annual returns of the portfolio--the part of the issue Ferri repeatedly ignores in his analysis/critique, reducing the negative impact of volatility. This, as Bill Bernstein and I have both shown, can lead to the impact of CCF being as much as perhaps 5% more than the actual return if you viewed it in isolation.

Again, here is an example I gave based on GSCI and model portfolio
1970-2006. If you think it is not worth it, don't bother. To me this is a big deal.
Compound Return SD Worst Year
GSCI 11.51 18.81 -35.75
Portfolio A 15.86 14.99 -23.51
Portfolio B 15.96 14.25 -20.38

A is Value tilted type portfolio I recommend using DFA funds and B is with 5% GSCI

Thinking about it the way Rick Ferri does one would never consider CCF. Simple, low returns and high SD. And horrendous worst year. But note how small addition to the portfolio had the following three benefits
a) raised portfolio return
b) lowered SD
c)produced lower worst year than either alone

Note the diversification return. The GSCI was 3.45% lower return, yet portfolio return went up by 0.1%.

Now here to me is perhaps the most interesting for the Bogelheads to consider.

How much did the 95% equity contribute to the portfolio return of 15.96? 15.07% (95% x 15.86)

So how much did the CCF (the other 5%) contribute to generate the total portfolio return of 15.96%?

The other 5% must have added 89 basis points more to get to the total.

So it was if it had actually returned 17.8% or 89 bp x20 (on a weighted average basis).

So we might think of the diversification return benefit as 17.8- 11.5 or 6.3%.
You think that should be ignored? Or was not worth it?

So if you thought that CCF would have a real return of say just riskless rate you still get the diversification return which should be considered.


Thanks Larry,

I had to sit and think about it, write out the converse example from you, but the benefit compared to the 5%CCF portion of the portfolio is 6.3 percent. The benefit of return to portfolio compared to the 95% nonCCF portion is 0.32 perent.

So the real or average benefit, I dunno, is it the weighted average of the two? I am still confused. I had to run thru the converse way of looking at it using your words/logic, but switching the CCF numbers and nonCCF numbers, basically thinking of it I guess, as adding 95%nonCCF to a CCF portfolio, to see what the "benefit" of the nonCCF addition is.

Saying 6.3 benefit, or 0.32 benefit, is likely saying the same thing in a different way, with "benefit" numbers that are very different in value. It comes down to "benefit" definition, should it be that the benefit of adding CCF is best thought of as some sort of average between those two numbers 6.3 and 0.32???? (6.3*0.05=.315)...

Here is my "converse" example, which generates the 0.32

LH-attempt-at-understanding wrote:
how much did the 5% equity contribute to the portfolio to generate the total return of 15.96? 0.58 (5%x11.51)

So how much did the non CCF(the other 95%) contribute to generate the total portfolio return of 15.96?

The other 95% must have added 15.38 (1538basis points) more to get to the total.

So it was if it(nonCCF) had actually returned 16.18% or 1538bp x 1.05 (on a weighted average basis).

So we might think of the diversification return benefit as 16.18-15.86 or 0.32%.


That bolded part, the part I looked at the "converse" way, is certainly highly interesting to me, and I agree its important to understand. I am sure this is all very clear to most people who use math regularly, but to me, I kinda had to plug through it a bit, and I still do not understand it yet.

I would be much more likely to ignore a 0.32 percent benefit, than a 6.3 percent benefit. But I think both figures do not give the real "benefit" number I should be looking at??? Instead of the benefit from the CCF side, or the nonCCF side, there should be a benefit from the portfolio side or something?

Thanks for your help, great example,

LH
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larryswedroe



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PostPosted: Thu Dec 20, 2007 7:35 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

LH
Say CCF returned 17.8% and is 5% of portfolio. Thus it contributed a total of 89bp to the portfolio.

Say the other 95% returned 15.86, so it contributed 15.07. The total portfolio return was 15.96.

So while the way Ferri would look at it he would say why buy this lousy asset with return of 11.51 percent and high SD. But the right way to look at it is if it returned 17.8% (the 11.5 plus the diversification return of 6.3)--the only right way to look at an asset is how it impacts the risk and return of the portfolio---that is what got Markowitz the Nobel Prize.

Now the really nice part is you got that effective return of 17.8% and you lowered the risk of the portfolio---Now you care to ignore it?

And this was only with 5%.

To me this is a very big deal, not trivial. And it shows that you only need a small allocation when you have negative correlation and high volatility.
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LH



Joined: 14 Mar 2007
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PostPosted: Thu Dec 20, 2007 7:53 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

larryswedroe wrote:
LH
Say CCF returned 17.8% and is 5% of portfolio. Thus it contributed a total of 89bp to the portfolio.

Say the other 95% returned 15.86, so it contributed 15.07. The total portfolio return was 15.96.


Quote:
Compound Return SD Worst Year
GSCI 11.51 18.81 -35.75
Portfolio A 15.86 14.99 -23.51
Portfolio B 15.96 14.25 -20.38



The 17.8 doesnt make sense to me. If I look at that another way, I can say the benefit comes to 0.32 percent. The bolded and underline figure is a derived figure. It seems to be comparing apples to oranges to some extent.

I can say that all the benefit goes to the nonCCF side, and that the CCF side in effect returned an extra 0.32 percent, while the CCF side returned what it returns alone 11.51.

Or like you said, you can state the nonCCF side returns what it returns alone 15.86, while all the benefit goes to the CCF side, for an extra benefit of 6.3 percent.

Its unclear to me, why I should look at it one way or the other in terms of "benefit" I can generate two pretty different numbers, depending on how the question if phrased. Both of which I can call "benefit", but something seems screwy.

In reality, neither the CCF is staying fixed, nor is the nonCCG is staying fixed, both components are responsible for some of that excess return.

But what is the REAL return, or rather what is the real "benefit"? I posit its somewhere between 6.3 and 0.32 percent.


Last edited by LH on Fri Dec 21, 2007 3:33 am; edited 3 times in total
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larryswedroe



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PostPosted: Thu Dec 20, 2007 10:40 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

LH
Your not looking at it right
The issue is you START with the 100% equity portfolio,Then you take away 5% equity and ADD 5% CCF.

Then you see what the impact was of adding the 5%.

You don't start with a 5% portfolio.
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LH



Joined: 14 Mar 2007
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 21, 2007 1:30 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

larryswedroe wrote:
LH
Your not looking at it right
The issue is you START with the 100% equity portfolio,Then you take away 5% equity and ADD 5% CCF.

Then you see what the impact was of adding the 5%.

You don't start with a 5% portfolio.



100 asset x return = 11.51
100 asset y return = 15.86
100 percent [95%y 5%x] return = 15.96

What is the benefit of a [95%y 5%x] portfolio over time that returns 15.96?

I am having difficulty with the justification for choosing to hold Y return constant, while allowing X return to float. Or vice versa. I do not see any difference, it appears symetrical to me, and both seem artificial, both yield different answers.

Its not X that provides the benefit to the [95%y 5%x] portfolio anymore than it is Y that provides the benefit to the [95%y 5%x] portfolio. Its the combination of X and Y together that provides the benefit. Neither X, nor Y return is fixed, boths assets combined account for the increase in return. To say that all the benefit comes from one asset of a two asset portfolio just seems wrong to me. Then to choose which one to pick seems arbitrary, also if you pick each one as fixed in turn and see what happens, the "benefit" one gets is very different.

The noncorrelation benefit causing the portfolio excess return belongs to both x and y. It does not soley reside in one or the other. When putting x and y together, one is adding x to y, just as surely as one is adding y to x?

To sum:

1)the fixing of either assets return seems artificial to begin with

2)the choice of which assets return to fix seems arbitrary?

Thanks for any help, hopefully I will get this, it does seem a very important, fundamental issue,

LH
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LH



Joined: 14 Mar 2007
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 21, 2007 3:03 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Code:
   port return               
y   15.960   0.950   15.162         
x   15.960   0.050   0.798         
                  
   return               
xport   11.510   0.050   0.576         
yport   15.860   0.950   15.067         
95y5x   15.960   ------   15.643   expected return 95y5x      
difference portfolio 0.318         


The expected unrebalanced return of a 95y5x portfoliois the sum of thier two returns alone =15.643

15.960-15.643 = 0.318 CAGR benefit via the rebalancing and low correlation of xy

Of this benefit, its seems that 0.05 percent should come from x, and 0.95 should come from y?

To say that of this benefit, 100 percent comes from either x or y alone does not make sense? Or does it?

LH
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market timer



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PostPosted: Fri Dec 21, 2007 3:16 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

LH,

I think it makes sense to start as Larry does with a 100% equities portfolio, though you could take your own allocation as the initial point as well. Now, what Larry is doing is taking the derivative of total return with respect to CCFs, subject to the budget constraint (all investments sum to 100%). He finds that replacing equities with CCFs increases total return by the difference 17.8% - 15.8% at the margin. The marginal benefit of adding CCFs should be highest from a starting point of 100% equities, and gradually decreasing along the budget until you get to 100% CCFs. In theory, you should continue adding CCFs until the marginal benefit is zero -- that is when the "rebalancing bonus" shows CCFs are effectively yielding the equity return of 15.8% at the margin.
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LH



Joined: 14 Mar 2007
Posts: 2477

PostPosted: Fri Dec 21, 2007 3:47 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

market timer wrote:
LH,

I think it makes sense to start as Larry does with a 100% equities portfolio, though you could take your own allocation as the initial point as well. Now, what Larry is doing is taking the derivative of total return with respect to CCFs, subject to the budget constraint (all investments sum to 100%). He finds that replacing equities with CCFs increases total return by the difference 17.8% - 15.8% at the margin. The marginal benefit of adding CCFs should be highest from a starting point of 100% equities, and gradually decreasing along the budget until you get to 100% CCFs. In theory, you should continue adding CCFs until the marginal benefit is zero -- that is when the "rebalancing bonus" shows CCFs are effectively yielding the equity return of 15.8% at the margin.


thanks for the margin and moving along a curve mentions, that will likely help me later with this.

Compound Return SD Worst Year
GSCI 11.51 18.81 -35.75
Portfolio A 15.86 14.99 -23.51
Portfolio B 15.96 14.25 -20.38

If you are starting with 100 equites, and moving along the curve, then at 95equity5ccf, the difference of total portfolio return 100stock to 95/5 split is simply:
15.96-15.86=0.1 right?

Quote:
He finds that replacing equities with CCFs increases total return by the difference 17.8% - 15.8% at the margin.


I do not see any increase, that equals 2 precent increase in total return....
15.86/15.96=0.994
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market timer



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PostPosted: Fri Dec 21, 2007 4:55 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

The 2% difference (17.8% - 15.8%) is applied to only 5% of the portfolio, hence the 0.1% total increase in return (2% x 5%).
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larryswedroe



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PostPosted: Fri Dec 21, 2007 10:09 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Look this is simple

Of course the benefit comes from how the different asset classes interact--

But what we are looking for is the IMPACT of the addition of the asset class. In this case it is 6%, that is the diversification return--it is as if the asset class returned not 11.5 but much higher. And if you looked at only the return of the asset class and its SD then you make a HUGE mistake.
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660ky612



Joined: 14 Jun 2007
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PostPosted: Mon Dec 24, 2007 12:54 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Quote:
Again, here is an example I gave based on GSCI and model portfolio
1970-2006. If you think it is not worth it, don't bother. To me this is a big deal.
Compound Return SD Worst Year
GSCI 11.51 18.81 -35.75
Portfolio A 15.86 14.99 -23.51
Portfolio B 15.96 14.25 -20.38

Portfolio A - no CCFs. Portfolio B with CCFs, right?
Portfolio B is probably a portfolio with re-balancing at some time -do not know when but perhaps annually say, and might be the reason that the useful formulae
o E( a X + b Y) = a E(X) + b E(Y),
o VAR (a X + b Y) = a^2 VAR (X) + b^2 VAR(Y) + 2 a b COV(X, Y)
don't work, but that has kept LH working hard, harder and harder.

In order to "show" or prove that Commodities CCFs were useful and to determine how much CCFs should be used from the historical perspective, a rolling analysis, say 5-years is essential (returns, SDs, correlations, efficient frontiier, Sharpe ratios. http://www.excelmodeling.com/free_samples.htm ). So that for example, 1973-1974 will be included in one lot, and forgotten in another lot.

Comments?

660ky612 from Hong Kong


-------------- cut --------------------------------------------
These are other people's homework already submitted.

On Sun Nov 11, 2007 1:27 pm
660ky612 wrote:
Historical Data

Two recent and seemingly relatively more advanced papers on portfolio asset allocation independently advocated commodities

o http://www.fpanet.org/journal/....6354_1.pdf
"Emphasizing low-correlated assets: the volatility of correlation by William J. Coaker, Journal of Financial Planning, 2007".

See P.68 Table 8 Balanced Investor Time period:1972-2004 Low-correlated portfolio. Note that Natural Resources is commodity CCF, source is from previous discussion.
S.D. is 8.9%, average annual return is 12.53%

o http://www.indexuniverse.com/i....mitstart=5
"The Benefits of Low Correlation by Craig Israelsen, October 2007, indexUniverse.com"

See P.6 Time Period: 1970-2006 Seven-Asset portfolio
S.D. is 8.67%, average annual return is 11.25%


The S.D.s' are the lowest I have seen with average annual return more than 11%.

The historical evidences were there, there is nothing to argue about. Comment?

Conclusion ?: Apart from slice and dice Growth/Value/Large/Small style; adding REIT, TIPS;
ADD Commodities, or even Global Bonds.


Is 1970-2006 the problem? Why not try testing starting from 1926, rolling five, ten or twenty years?

If the historical data confirmed the value of commodities, why keep on arguing the value of commodities?

Thanks,
660ky612 from Hong Kong


Note: In Craig Israelsen's October 2007 paper p.1, "It is proposed that these three measures of portfolio risk -- maximum portfolio drawdown, frequency of loss and probability of recovery from a loss -- are more intuitively useful to the average investor than is the standard deviation of return."
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