We recently bought a house, and even after reading through the IRS codes I can't figure out how mortgage deduction limits work when you're renting a portion of your property and your mortgage amount is above $1 million. I'm trying to understand if it makes sense to pre-pay my mortgage or not. Any advice would be appreciated.
Situation:
- $1.28M mortgage @ 3.875% interest rate on a property with 2 structures. The main house, and a separate dwelling with a separate address that we are listing for rent.
- 39.6% tax bracket
- The rental property is approximately 20% of total property interior square footage. If I use interior square footage for valuation, this property should represent .2 * $1.28M = 256k of our mortgage.
- I think our main house and primary residence is thus worth .8 * $1.28M = $1.024M of our mortgage.
What I would like to do is pay down my mortgage until my mortgage interest is not pro-rated under the mortgage deduction limit. I believe all I need to do is pay off $30k early and have $1.25M on the mortgage left. I want to deduct 20% of the mortgage interest as a rental expense, and then I want to deduct 80% * $1.25M = $1M of the mortgage value for the main house. If I understand this correctly, I'd be able to deduct the maximum amount of my mortgage between my main house and the rental property since the main house mortgage value is less than or equal to $1M.
However, I haven't found any clear instructions on whether I can remove the value of the rental property from the mortgage amount to be under the mortgage deduction limit. If not, I'd have to pay off $280k -- money that I don't have to spend right now on the mortgage.
Does anyone know the answer to this problem? Thanks for your help!