Assume a percentage of assets are tied up in cash for whatever reasons (10 year CD’s. Annuities, personal preference, etc). This percentage may be small (around 10%, or large, around 50%)
The remaining assets will be invested in the Market using the Bogleman approach.
Assume that the starting point ratio for the Bogleman assests to be a totally standard split of Stocks (domestic and international), and Bonds based on age.
How should that standard ratio of assets be adjusted to account for the large cash position ?
On one hand, I was thinking since there are other safe assets (the cash), that the percentage of bonds could be make smaller or even 0.
On the other hand, something I saw on here was that the bonds are not just in the portfolio to be conservative, but are in the portfolio to be a “counter-weight” to the stocks (stocks go up, bonds go down, and visa versa).
Peoples thoughts ?
From my point of view, I am ultra conservative and in my mid 40’s. Although it goes against the conventional wisdom, I wont be able to sleep at night with most of my assets in the Market. My thought process (however flawed), is that I can live (and sleep at night) with the almost 100% certainty that my captial will be depreciated due to inflation, but I cant live (or sleep), with the knowledge that my entire portfolio might lose half its value (2008) and never make it up (at some point, 10 years from now, 50 years from now, the economy will shrink, and we wont be able to make the money back. That what I think at least, but what do I know?)
On the other hand, I want to have SOME assets in the market, and I want to handle those assets using the Bogleman philosophy.
