sksavers2 wrote:Mortgage on principal home (380k @ 4.75 fixed)
Federal tax rate: 33%
State tax rate: 5.25% plus County Tax 3.2%
Her Rollover IRA with Vanguard (10.2% of total portfolio) – rolled over 401k from former company
Taxable (40.1% of total portfolio)
11.6% - Vanguard Total Stock Market Admiral (VTSAX) (0.06%)
10.3% - Vanguard FTSE Ex-US Index Admiral (VTIAX) (0.18%)
13.6% - Employer Stock – international, diversified professional services organization (ESPP at 15% discount; purchased 10% of income since 2001 and have sold sporadically. Trying to convince husband to cut this down to 8%...but hard to convince when the stock has outperformed all other investments annually.)
New annual contributions
$24,200 His 401(k) (including matching contributions)
$5,000 Her nondeductible IRA (immediate backdoor Roth conversion)
$12,000 taxable (approximate)
QUESTIONS:
2. Would it make sense for us to open a Roth 401(k) (an option through husband’s employer, in addition to the regular 401(k))? We would use this for the money that would otherwise go to the taxable Vanguard accounts.
sksavers2 wrote:I think we are doing the IRA backdoor correctly, but it is also debatable. My rollover is a completely different account and has never been mingled with my regular IRA (traditional or Roth), so I think I have an argument for not mingling it.
The IRS considers all non-Roth IRAs to be one big fat IRA. SEP-IRAs, SIMPLE-IRAs, Traditional IRAs (with or without non-deductible contributions), and Rollover IRAs (which are considered the same as Traditional IRAs for this purpose) are all included in the mix. Mingling isn't the issue.
For example, if you have a Rollover IRA worth $95,000 (all pre-tax) and make a $5,000 non-deductible contribution to a Traditional IRA and then convert it, you will have to pay taxes on 95% of the conversion. The taxes are pro-rated. See Backdoor Roth IRA and IRS Form 8606.
A few things here don't make sense to me, but I'm reverse engineering your numbers to infer your income, so I could be wrong.sksavers2 wrote:My job now provides about 30% of our family income
Federal tax rate: 33%
State tax rate: 5.25% plus County Tax 3.2%
New annual contributions
$24,200 His 401(k) (including matching contributions)
(Wife ineligible for 403(b) or Spousal IRA as fellow earning stipend, not W2 income).
$12,000 taxable committed to ESPP (15% discount)
It doesn't matter whether there was a gain or a loss. What matters is the value of all your non-Roth IRAs at the end of the year. That number goes on Form 8606 line 6.sksavers2 wrote:At the time we made the initial rollover, there were no gains (I rolled over with losses). The same year of the rollover was the first time I did backdoor Roth from a $5k contribution to a traditional nondeductible IRA. So that year I would have owed no taxes on the conversion because there was no gain.
Okay, this puzzles me. The Backdoor Roth IRA option only became viable in 2010 when the $100,000 income limit on Roth IRA conversions was removed. Its purpose is to allow people with too much income for "direct" Roth IRA contributions to contribute "indirectly" using the "back door" method. This couldn't happen before 2010 because of the conversion income limit, so 2012 is only the third year this is possible. Are you sure we're talking (writing) about the same thing?The second, third, fourth, etc... years I did a backdoor Roth, I probably did have gains on the original Rollover IRA (which is no longer getting contributions except for reinvested dividends).
Using round numbers, if you make a non-deductible contribution of $5,000 and convert it (assuming it's the only basis), and at the end of the year have $105,000 in non-Roth IRAs, then 95.5% (105/110) is taxable. If at the end of the year you have $86,000 in non-Roths then 94.5% (86/91) is taxable, and so on. It's all figured on Form 8606.Would I owe taxes on the proportion of the 5k new contribution to be converted relative to the Rollover amount (the proportion of the Rollover IRA is getting smaller relative to the Roth IRA as each year I am adding to the Roth IRA)?
Bob's not my name wrote:A few things here don't make sense to me, but I'm reverse engineering your numbers to infer your income, so I could be wrong.[list][*]To be in the 33% bracket you would have to have gross income over about $290,000. That would make your income (30% of family income) at least $90,000 and his at least $200,000. But his 401k and ESPP numbers suggest to me his income is $120,000 (10% to ESPP = $12,000, and 6% employer 401k match + $17,000 = $24,200), which would make your income about $60,000, your combined gross income about $180,000, your AGI about $150,000 (well under the direct Roth IRA and spousal TIRA phaseout), and your taxable income about $110,000, which is way down in the 25% bracket. So I must be inferring incorrectly, right?[*]That looks like MD state tax, but the MD state tax was increased retroactively this year, so if you're really in the 33% federal bracket your state rate would be 5.75% + 3.2% = 8.95%[*]
Eligibility for a spousal IRA does not depend on W2 income, since the other spouse's earned income makes you eligible. Rather, there is a MAGI limit on eligibility for deductible TIRA contributions, which is the same as the Roth MAGI limit. So ... are you really ineligible for Roth and spousal TIRA contributions?
Also, have your spouse read this on ESPP: http://thefinancebuff.com/employee-stoc ... pp-is.html
Duckie wrote:It doesn't matter whether there was a gain or a loss. What matters is the value of all your non-Roth IRAs at the end of the year. That number goes on Form 8606 line 6.sksavers2 wrote:At the time we made the initial rollover, there were no gains (I rolled over with losses). The same year of the rollover was the first time I did backdoor Roth from a $5k contribution to a traditional nondeductible IRA. So that year I would have owed no taxes on the conversion because there was no gain.
Duckie wrote:Okay, this puzzles me. The Backdoor Roth IRA option only became viable in 2010 when the $100,000 income limit on Roth IRA conversions was removed. Its purpose is to allow people with too much income for "direct" Roth IRA contributions to contribute "indirectly" using the "back door" method. This couldn't happen before 2010 because of the conversion income limit, so 2012 is only the third year this is possible. Are you sure we're talking (writing) about the same thing?sksavers2 wrote:The second, third, fourth, etc... years I did a backdoor Roth, I probably did have gains on the original Rollover IRA (which is no longer getting contributions except for reinvested dividends).
Duckie wrote:Using round numbers, if you make a non-deductible contribution of $5,000 and convert it (assuming it's the only basis), and at the end of the year have $105,000 in non-Roth IRAs, then 95.5% (105/110) is taxable. If at the end of the year you have $86,000 in non-Roths then 94.5% (86/91) is taxable, and so on. It's all figured on Form 8606.sksavers2 wrote:Would I owe taxes on the proportion of the 5k new contribution to be converted relative to the Rollover amount (the proportion of the Rollover IRA is getting smaller relative to the Roth IRA as each year I am adding to the Roth IRA)?
sksavers2 wrote:... there is a good chance we will be selling the house and moving again next year or the year after, so ... investing in paying it down is not a good idea ...
sksavers2 wrote:Duckie wrote:Using round numbers, if you make a non-deductible contribution of $5,000 and convert it (assuming it's the only basis), and at the end of the year have $105,000 in non-Roth IRAs, then 95.5% (105/110) is taxable. If at the end of the year you have $86,000 in non-Roths then 94.5% (86/91) is taxable, and so on. It's all figured on Form 8606.
Wait. Really?? This seems like getting taxed on the same money over and over again.
Your bracket is based on your taxable income, not your gross income, and surely you are in the 25% bracket for 2012 (under current law this will be 28% in 2013).sksavers2 wrote:You are inferring exactly right (actually spot-on! I make 65k so our total is 185k plus his variable pay). I was looking at the wrong tax rate. I think we are actually in the 28% bracket in gross dollars and didn't consider that the 401k contributions drop us down.Bob's not my name wrote:A few things here don't make sense to me, but I'm reverse engineering your numbers to infer your income, so I could be wrong.[list][*]To be in the 33% bracket you would have to have gross income over about $290,000. That would make your income (30% of family income) at least $90,000 and his at least $200,000. But his 401k and ESPP numbers suggest to me his income is $120,000 (10% to ESPP = $12,000, and 6% employer 401k match + $17,000 = $24,200), which would make your income about $60,000, your combined gross income about $180,000, your AGI about $150,000 (well under the direct Roth IRA and spousal TIRA phaseout), and your taxable income about $110,000, which is way down in the 25% bracket. So I must be inferring incorrectly, right?[*]That looks like MD state tax, but the MD state tax was increased retroactively this year, so if you're really in the 33% federal bracket your state rate would be 5.75% + 3.2% = 8.95%[*]
Bob's not my name wrote:$161,000 MAGI --> way under the Roth IRA phaseout (which starts at $173,000 for 2012 and $178,000 for 2013)
- $15,200 personal exemptions
- $25,000 itemized deductions (guess based on your high mortgage and high state taxes and guessing at high property tax)
------------
$121,000 taxable income --> way under this year's 28% bracket
Your marginal rate is actually 25% + 5% due to child tax credit phaseout + 7.95% MD deductible against federal so effectively 6% = 36%
Bob's not my name wrote:Agreed. In the lower end of the AMT the effective marginal rate is 32.5% and state tax is not deductible, so your marginal rate could be 32.5% + 7.95% = 40.5%. Throw in payroll taxes and you are losing over 45% of the lower earning spouse's pay to taxes.
bdpb wrote:sksavers2 wrote:... there is a good chance we will be selling the house and moving again next year or the year after, so ... investing in paying it down is not a good idea ...
This actually argues more in favor of putting all of your near term future taxable savings towards the mortgage. Any money that is used to pay the mortgage effectively earns a taxable 4.75% (since you will no longer pay interest on it). When you sell in the near future, you can take back as much of this savings as you want.
This is essentially like earning 4.75% on a one or two year CD. This is an excellent return. One or two year CDs are earning around 1% or less.
Default User BR wrote:sksavers2 wrote:Duckie wrote:Using round numbers, if you make a non-deductible contribution of $5,000 and convert it (assuming it's the only basis), and at the end of the year have $105,000 in non-Roth IRAs, then 95.5% (105/110) is taxable. If at the end of the year you have $86,000 in non-Roths then 94.5% (86/91) is taxable, and so on. It's all figured on Form 8606.
Wait. Really?? This seems like getting taxed on the same money over and over again.
No. The way pro-rata works is that you can't convert just the non-taxable portion. If you do a conversion of X dollars, then a portion of it is taxable. That is figured by multiplying the conversion amount by T/(T+N), where T = taxable amount and N = non-taxable amount. So if T = 0, then none is taxable. After you figure that, then you are withdrawing from both the taxable and non-taxable portions of the IRA in proportion to the taxable percentage.
As suggested, get a copy of 8606 and work through an example.
Brian
I was referring to the child tax credit. You are referring to two other things: the dependent care tax credit and the dependent care FSA. You are probably ineligible for the first (it phases out for two kids over AGI $110,000 - $150,000). I don't know about eligibility for the other two.sksavers2 wrote:We do not qualify for the child care tax credit (the child care savings account)
sksavers2 wrote:bdpb wrote:sksavers2 wrote:... there is a good chance we will be selling the house and moving again next year or the year after, so ... investing in paying it down is not a good idea ...
This actually argues more in favor of putting all of your near term future taxable savings towards the mortgage. Any money that is used to pay the mortgage effectively earns a taxable 4.75% (since you will no longer pay interest on it). When you sell in the near future, you can take back as much of this savings as you want.
This is essentially like earning 4.75% on a one or two year CD. This is an excellent return. One or two year CDs are earning around 1% or less.
If we think we will lose money on the sale, does this logic still work? We hope we can sell the house for what we paid, but most likely it will sell for a little less, and the transaction costs will be ~10%, so we are looking at losing about 15% of the sales price...which is almost all of the 20% down payment we made.
sksavers2 wrote:I filled out 8606 for the last 2 years for the conversion but now I'm worried I did it wrong. In Part 1, I put $0 for Line 1, Total Basis in Traditional IRAs. I think what I'm understanding from this thread is that I should be including as the basis the amount in the Rollover IRA. Yes?

2stepsbehind wrote:I, for one, just want to thank you for providing an update. It isn't often that people come back on the board to discuss how they've implemented some of the advice they've received. Kudos to you and best wishes with this next phase.
[/quote]Duckie wrote:Example 2:
1. You have a Rollover IRA of $105,000.00 (all pre-tax) at the beginning of the year. This is the only non-Roth IRA you have. (For Form 8606 purposes a Rollover IRA is the same as a Traditional IRA.)
2. In January you make a $5,000.00 non-deductible contribution to a new Traditional IRA.
3. In May you convert the entire amount of the Traditional IRA (which is now $5,025.00) to a Roth IRA.
4. At the end of the year your Traditional IRA is empty and your Rollover IRA is $110,000.00.
5. You fill out Form 8606 to file with your taxes.Part I, line 1 is 5,000.00 (the amount of your non-deductible contribution)
You may need to amend your taxes for 2010, 2011.
Line 2 is 0 (because you have no previous basis in the Traditional IRA or the Rollover IRA)
Line 3 is 5,000.00
Line 4 is 0 or blank
Line 5 is 5,000.00
Line 6 is 110,000.00 (the total amount in all your non-Roth IRAs)
Line 7 is 0 or blank
Line 8 is 5,025.00
Line 9 is 115,025.00
Line 10 is 0.043
Line 11 is 216.08
Line 12 is 0
Line 13 is 216.08
Line 14 is 4,783.92 (next year this will be your basis on line 2)
Line 15 is 0
Part II, line16 is 5,025.00
Line 17 is 216.08
Line 18 is 4,808.92 (you will pay taxes on this amount)
bdpb wrote:sksavers2 wrote:bdpb wrote:sksavers2 wrote:... there is a good chance we will be selling the house and moving again next year or the year after, so ... investing in paying it down is not a good idea ...
This actually argues more in favor of putting all of your near term future taxable savings towards the mortgage. Any money that is used to pay the mortgage effectively earns a taxable 4.75% (since you will no longer pay interest on it). When you sell in the near future, you can take back as much of this savings as you want.
This is essentially like earning 4.75% on a one or two year CD. This is an excellent return. One or two year CDs are earning around 1% or less.
If we think we will lose money on the sale, does this logic still work? We hope we can sell the house for what we paid, but most likely it will sell for a little less, and the transaction costs will be ~10%, so we are looking at losing about 15% of the sales price...which is almost all of the 20% down payment we made.
Yes. If the house sells for less, you're going to have to come up with the difference anyway.
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